In reading Mark I ran across some questions so if ya have any answers, let me know.
1. In Mark 10:17-18 the rich man calls Jesus "Good Teacher" and Jesus replies
"Why do you call me good? Only God is truly good."
The commentary suggests that the man's idea of "good" was very loose. He probably considered himself good also, and wanted to know how that goodness would help him. Garland's suggestion was simple, Jesus wanted clear up the issue of pride and explain that only one was good. I wonder if the man did not believe that he was God and Jesus knew this.
2. In Mark 12: 35-37 Jesus seems to be rejecting the title of "Son of David." "Why do the teachers of the religious law claim that the Messiah is the Son of David? For David himself speaking under the inspiration of the Holy Spirit,
'The Lord said to my Lord
Sit in the place of honor at my right hand
until I humble your enemies at your feet.'
Since David himself called the Messiah 'my Lord', how can the Messiah be his son?"
Garland does not even address these verses, but what I got from the Dictionary was that Jesus did not want to be associated with those violent revolutionaries and the Jewish idea of a militaristic Messiah. I don't think that just because you call someone "my Lord" outomaticly excludes them from relation or sonship, so unless that was a historical thing then I think Jesus may have been trying to make another point.
So I guess I just answered my own questions, or at least with oppinions, but I guess that is all that you can have sometimes with the Bible.
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